
Originally Posted by
kevinpate
andy, and others close to the actual language -
Not knowing the specific language, I'm not sure why it is considered important.
If the language being used by the FD is not necessary to securing a rollover contract, which the FD apparently supports, then it is seemingly just an obstacle.
Would not including the language change the past?
If it is not included in these negotiations, does the slap to the city from arbitration simply vaporize, or otherwise get vacated, or is that finding from arbitration still in fact of record somewhere?
I've not suggested it should be treated as though it never happened, but perhaps there is a way to acknowledge it separate from starting fresh with an otherwise acceptable rollover of the existing contract terms.
Again, perhaps not, but stalemates rarely benefit anyone long term, so perhaps its existence on the mantle across the room is enough.
Just trying to understand better.
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