Originally Posted by
aDark
Admittedly, I haven't studied Indian law in many years. But, my understanding is that if the lands were deemed "Indian lands" then jurisdiction of Indian affairs matters would indeed return to the tribes. However, property ownership would not change. Therefore, a return to "reservations" isn't a fair statement. Yes, you'd have tribal members once again resolving tribal disputes in their own courts or federal court, as opposed to say Tulsa County. Beyond that, the privately owned lands would simply stay where they currently are. Now, if a nation owned some property which was not "on the reservation" previously (aka, they didn't have jurisdiction to build a casino) they could now operate that land as if it was and had always been Indian land. Does this make sense?
In short, I don't think half of the state becomes a reservation in the modern understanding of the term.
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