Though that may be correct, it also may be pure balderdash.
Although I favor the OKC residents passing MAPs, I've yet to see a specific reference to what law forbids the city from using the approach previously used.
If you have a specific reference to a statute or a constitutional provision that either expressly forbids the specificity of the prior MAPs ballot, or at least creates a good faith argument that it could, please share the citation.
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